content listlengths 1 1 | teacher_response stringlengths 21 22.5k | answer stringclasses 4
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{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Muscle relaxant of choice in renal and hepatic failure\nChoices:\nA. Cis Atracurium\nB. Vecuronium\nC. Rocuronium\nD. Rapacuronium\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an u... | Refer Katzung 9/e p432 Atracurium and cis-Atracurium are muscle relaxants of choice for renal and hepatic failure patients
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>One of the impoant defence mechanism is\nChoices:\nA. Alienation\nB. Confabulation\nC. Repression\nD. Suppression\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (... | Repression is a primary defence mechanism and is defined as unconsciously excluding from conscious awareness of anxiety-provoking ideas and /or feelings. eg in normal life: forgetting and slips of the tongue (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no 207)
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Commonest benigm tumour of the eosophagus?\nChoices:\nA. Leiomyoma\nB. Papilloma\nC. Adenoma\nD. Hemangioma\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, ... | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Leiomyoma
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Fall on heel with fracture os calcis is associated with commonly:\nChoices:\nA. Fracture clavicle\nB. Fracture veebra\nC. Fracture femur\nD. Posterior dislocation of hip\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answ... | B i.e. Fracture veebrae Calcaneum is the most commonly fractrued tarsal bone and in most cases the mode of injury is fell front height over 20% of these patients suffer associated injury of spine (most common)Q, pelvis or hip and base of skull Most commonly associated injury of veebral bodies (-12%), makes clinical & radiological examination of lumbo dorsal spine necessary in patients of calcaneum fractureQ Fracture calcaneum is most often is associated with other injuries (- 20%) - Compression fracture of dorso - lumbar veebraeQ (-10%) - Fracture pelvis (pubic rami) and hip - Fracture base of skull (atlanto -axial injury) - Fracture talus - Veical compression fracture of lower end tibia
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which is a not an essential criteria according to WHO for normal semen analysis:\nChoices:\nA. Sperm count > 20 million/ml\nB. Volume > 1 ml\nC. Sperm with normal morphology (strict criteria) > 15%\nD. Motility >... | Normal seminal fluid analysis:
Semen analysis - WHO
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The active ingredient of X-ray film is -\nChoices:\nA. Silver chloride\nB. Silver bromide\nC. Silver nitrate\nD. Gold chloride\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an upper... | An X ray film consists of polyster base ,emulsion,and crystals of Silver Halide.The silver bromide crystals are spread over emulsion that is applied on a polyester base.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Heberden's Arthropathy affects -\nChoices:\nA. Lumbar spine\nB. Symmetrically large joints\nC. Sacroiliac joints\nD. Distal interphalangeal joints\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </an... | In osteoarthritis of hand :
i) Distal interphalangeal joint :- Heberden's node.
ii) Proximal interphalangeal joint :- Bouchard's node
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is a sexual spore ?\nChoices:\nA. Chlamydospore\nB. Sporangiospore\nC. Ascospore\nD. Phialoconidia\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase ... | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ascospore
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 69 year old male patient having coronary artery disease was found to have gall bladder stones while undergoing a routine ultrasound of the abdomen. There was no history of biliary colic or jaundice at any time.... | Ans. is 'c' No surgery for gallbladder stones Ref.: Schwartz Surgery Pretest based on 7th/e p 204, Q no. 558; CSDT 11th/e p 546, p 605 Schwartz Pretest writes- "In a patient who has asymptomatic cholelithiasis as an incidental finding, however, there are no data to suggest that any therapeutic intervention is justified. Fewer than 25 percent of patients with asymptomatic cholelithiasis will develop symptoms that require intervention over a 5 year follow-up period."
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 60 year male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he had committed sins all throughout his life. He is very much depressed and has considered committing suicide but has not thought how to do it. He has also h... | The patient in question is presenting with features of depression and delusional guilt suggesting a diagnosis of depressive disorder with psychotic features. Treatment of such patients initially includes a combination of anti psychotic and antidepressant medication. In these patients, psychotic features of depression such as hallucinations or delusions (delusional hypochondria, feelings of guilt, nihilistic thoughts) are predominantly mood congruent. These patients return to normal functioning after resolution of acute mood and psychotic symptoms. Psychotic symptoms are indicators of the severity of depression, including suicide risk. Ref: Lippincott's Primary Care Psychiatry By Robe M. McCarron, page 100; Fundamentals of Psychiatry By Allan Tasman, page 126-8.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Excessive hemorrhage from tonsillectomy is due to injury of the -\nChoices:\nA. Paratonsillar vein\nB. Ascending palatine artery\nC. Rheumatic tonsillitis\nD. Physiological enlargement\n</Question>\nAt the end pr... | "Excessive bleeding at the time of operation usually arises because of trauma to an aberrant vessel or paratonsillar vein"
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All of the following are indications for eicosanoids or their inhibitors EXCEPT :\nChoices:\nA. Abortion\nB. Essential hypertension\nC. Patent ductus arteriosus\nD. Transposition of the great arteries\n</Question... |
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 55-year-old men is diabetic and has a long history of renal failure. He is currently waiting for an organ for transplant and has been on hemodialysis in the interim. If this man develops amyloid deposits around... | Amyloid deposits appear similar by light and electron microscopy, but actually represent a heterogeneous population of proteins that have a common teiary structure forming a beta-pleated sheet. Questions about the type of amyloid seen in different disease states are orites on examinations. Here are two tables to help you out: Systemic amyloidosis: Chronic active diseaseAA amyloid from serum amyloid- associated (SAA) protein from liver (choice A)Myelomas and related diseasesAL amyloid from immunoglobulin light chain (choice B)Chronic hemodialysisBeta2 microglobulin (related to high plasma levels) (choice C)Nephropathic hereditary forms (familial Mediterranean fever)AA amyloid from SAA (choice A)Cardiomyopathic hereditary forms (senile systemic amyloidosis)Prealbumin/transthyretin Neuropathic hereditary syndromesPrealbumin/transthyretin Localized amyloidosis: Senile cardiac amyloidosisAtrial natriuretic peptide-related fibrilsCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeMedullary carcinoma of thyroidCalcitonin precursors (choice D)Isolated, massive, nodular deposits (skin, lung, urogenital tract)AL from light chains (choice B)
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>BAse substitution mutations can have been following molecular consequence except\nChoices:\nA. Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino acid\nB. Codon for one amino acid is chang... | A substitution is a mutation that exchanges one base for another (i.e., a change in a single "chemical letter" such as switching an A to a G). Such a substitution could:Change a codon to one that encodes a different amino acid and causes a small change in the protein produced. For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a substitution in the beta-hemoglobin gene, which alters a single amino acid in the protein produced.Change a codon to one that encodes the same amino acid and causes no change in the protein produced. These are called silent mutations.Change an amino-acid-coding codon to a single "stop" codon and cause an incomplete protein. This can have serious effects since the incomplete protein probably won&;t function.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A child with high fever, severe sore throat presented with painful swallowing. Her voice was abnormal. Quinsy was diagnosed. What is referred to as Quinsy?\nChoices:\nA. Peritonsillar abscess\nB. Retropharyngeal ... | When infection penetrates the tonsillar capsule and involves the surrounding tissues, peritonsillar cellulitis results. Peritonsillar abscess otherwise known as 'quinsy' and cellulitis present with severe sore throat, odynophagia, trismus, medial detion of the soft palate and peritonsillar fold, and an abnormal muffled ("hot potato") voice.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In an autosomal Recessive (AR) disorder, one parent is normal and the other is carrier and the child is also affected. What is the reason?\nChoices:\nA. Germline mosaicism\nB. Genomic imprinting\nC. Penetration\n... | If one parent is normal for an autosomal recessive disorder and the other is carrier - No child should be affected. But there is exception to this rule, i.e. uniparental disomy (UPD), when a person receives 2 copies of a chromosome, from one parent and no copies from the other parent. Ex: In Prader-Willi syndrome- maternal UPD of chromosome 15 (missing the paternal chromosome 15). In Angelman syndrome- paternal UPD of chromosome 15 (missing the maternal chromosome 15).
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Most efficient removal of hard tissue is done by\nChoices:\nA. Er laser\nB. Argon visible laser\nC. Nd:YAG\nD. HO: YAG\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase let... |
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Cardiac muscle is able to function as a syncy-tium because of the structural presence of\nChoices:\nA. Branching fibres\nB. Intercalated disc\nC. Protoplasmic bridges between cells\nD. Gap-junctions\n</Question>\... | D i.e. Gap junction Cardiac muscle have characteristic intercalated discQ (always at z line) &skeletal muscle have cross striation; and smooth muscles don't have both.Skeletal muscle has dark & light bands and peripherally placed nucleusQ;where as cardiac muscle has intercalated disc & centrally placed nucleusQEach cardiac muscle has a single nucleusQ. Cardiac muscle fiber branch & interdigitateQ. Cardiac muscle function as a synctium because of presence of gap junctionQ.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>What is the the most probable diagnosis of a child who presents with white umbilicated lesions on face?\nChoices:\nA. Molluscumcontagiosum\nB. Herpes simplex infection\nC. Erythema toxicumneonatorum\nD. Human pap... | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Molluscumcontagiosum Pearly white umblicated papule on face in children is most commonly seen in Molluscumcontagiosum. Molluscum contagiosum It is a common viral infection in children. It is caused by pox virus, i.e., Molluscum contagiosum virus. It is characterized by multiple pearly white, dome-shaped papules which are umbilicated centrally. On using a hand lens, many of the papules has a mosaic appearance. Epidermal cells contain eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Molluscum or Henderso-Paterson bodies). Autoinoculation can give rise to lesions arranged linearly along line of trauma ----> pseudoismorphic (pseudokoebner's) phenomenon. M.C. may involve any pa of the body In children face is involved most commonly. Anogenital molluscum contagiosum is a STD. Treatement Curretage, electrocautery, cryotherapy are simple and effective methods. Imiquimed, a recently introduced immunostimulant, is helpful in patients with multiple lesions and in small children.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following does not involve nerve damage -\nChoices:\nA. Guillian Barre syndrome\nB. Erb's paralysis\nC. Volkmann's paralysis\nD. Neurotmesis\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> a... | Volkmann's ischemic contracture is also called Volkmann's ischemic paralysis.
In Volkmann's ischemic contracture nerves (median & ulnar) are involved.
But the contracture is due to necrosis and fibrosis as results of ischemia.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the following:\nChoices:\nA. Kerosene poisoning\nB. Iron toxicity\nC. Organophosphorus poisoning\nD. Acetaminophen poisoning\n</Question>\nAt the end present your ans... | Ans. A. Kerosene poisoningGastric lavage is a technique for stomach emptying that theoretically allows direct irrigation and removal of unabsorbed toxin from the stomach. Gastric lavage is indicated in those patients who ingest highly toxic substances and are brought to the emergency department soon after ingestion. Hydrocarbon ingestion is a contraindication for the use of gastric lavage due to increased risk of aspiration.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Carcinoma tongue most frequently develops from -\nChoices:\nA. Tip\nB. Lateral border\nC. Dorsal portion\nD. All portions equally\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an up... | Common sites for oral cancer
Tongue carcinoma → Lateral border
Lip carcinoma → Vermilion of lower lip
Cheek carcinoma → Angle of mouth
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Menopause is defined as cessation of menstruation for -\nChoices:\nA. 3 consecutive months\nB. 6 consecutive months\nC. 12 consecutive months\nD. 15 consecutive months\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer... |
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Whicm among the following doe not cause hyperpyrexia?\nChoices:\nA. MAGI\nB. Alcohol\nC. Atropine\nD. Amphetamine\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (... | B i.e. Alcohol Alcohol (methyl and ethyl) causes hypothermia (not hypehermia) and peripheral vasodilationQ. Peripheral vasodilatation increases peripheral circulation resulting in feeling of warmth and warm skin, but at the same time actually there is loss of body heat from skin resulting in hypothermia. This becomes very impoant in cold temperatures. Antidepressants (such as amphetamine, MAO-inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants) and atropine all have anticholinergic effects causing hyperpyrexiaQ.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The drug which acts by inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in helminths?\nChoices:\nA. Niclosamide\nB. Piperazine\nC. Praziquantel\nD. Mebendazole\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </a... | Niclosamide is a chlorinated salicylamide for most cestode infections acts by, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation. But post drug purging is required for niclosamide, unlike praziquantel and albendazole.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 805.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>At a flow rate of 3L/min, inspiratory (FUO2) concentration of 30–60% can be achieved by using a –\nChoices:\nA. Nasopharyngeal catheter\nB. Simple face mask\nC. Venturi mask\nD. Head box\n</Question>\nAt the end ... | Nasopharyngeal catheter deliver 32% of O2 (FiO2 → 0.32) at flow-rate 3 litre / minute.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Nigro protocol is for management of -\nChoices:\nA. Rectal carcinoma\nB. Anal canal carcinoma\nC. Gastrinoma\nD. Renal cell carcinoma\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using a... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anal canal carcinoma * Nigro protocol includes combined radiation and chemotherapy with 5FU and mitomycin C. It is commonly used in management of anal canal carcinoma.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following advises is not given to a 35 years old female patient with recurrent renal stone\nChoices:\nA. Increase water\nB. Restrict protein\nC. Restrict salt\nD. Restricted calcium intake\n</Questio... | Ans. d. Restricted calcium intake A source of calcium at each meal may actually help prevent oxalate stones from forming as the calcium binds with oxalate in food and thus prevents the oxalate from being absorbed into the bodyQ Dietary Modification in Stone Disease Increase Intake of FluidQ Dietary calciumQ Potassium and phytates Vitamin CQ Decrease Intake of OxalateQ Animal proteinQ Sucrose Fructose Sodium
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Hypokalemia is likely to be seen in\nChoices:\nA. Insulin therapy\nB. Addison's disease\nC. Starvation ketosis\nD. Hemolytic anemias\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an... |
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Fibromuscular wall is seen in -\nChoices:\nA. Gall bladder\nB. Duodenum\nC. Jejunum\nD. ileum\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
... | The extrahepatic biliary tree and gallbladder share a similar microscopic anatomy, consisting of a fibromuscular wall lined by mucin producing columnar epithelium similar to that seen in intrahepatic bile ducts.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>ESI act does not cover which of the following: September 2010\nChoices:\nA. Hotel employee\nB. Transpoters\nC. Railway employees\nD. Factory employees\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and ... | Ans. C: Railway employees This act covers all employees including engaged through the contracts but whose remuneration does not exceed Rs. 10, 000 p.m. including staff in the class of administrative, canteen, loading-unloading, security, etc. Apprentices who are appointed for learning the work with no right of being absorbed in service, do not come with the ambit of this act.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A normal child develops the ability to use 10 words with meaning at the age of\nChoices:\nA. 12 months\nB. 15 months\nC. 18 months\nD. 24 months\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answ... | <p>. Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on forearm suppo if put in prone position, lifting the upper pa of the body off the bed. 5 months: Rolls over. 6 months:sit in tripod fashion. 8 months: sits without suppo., crawling 9 months: Takes a few steps with one hand held. Pulls to standing and cruises holding on to furniture by 10 months. 10 months: creeps 12 months:creeps well, walk but falls, stand without suppo. 15 months: walks well, walks backward/ sideways pulling a toy. May crawl upstairs. 18 months: Runs, walks upstair with one hand held. Explores drawers 2 years: walk up and downstairs, jumps. 3 years : rides tricycle, alternate feet going upstairs. 4 years: hops on one foot, alternate feet going downstairs. 5 years:skips FINE MOTOR DEVELOPMENT:- 2 months- eyes follow objects to 180 deg. 3 months-Grasp reflex disappears and hand is open most of the time. 4 months- Bidextrous approach( reaching out for objects with both hands). 6 months- Unidextrous approach( Reach for an object with one hand). 8 months- radial grasp sta to develop. Turns to sound above the level of ear. 9 months- immature pincer grasp, probes with forefinger. 12 months-Unassisted pincer grasp. Releases object on request.Uses objects predominantly for playing, not for mouthing. Holds block on each hand and bang them together. 15 months- imitate scribbling , tower of two blocks 18 months- scribbles, tower of 3 blocks.turn pages of a book, 2-3 at a time. 2 years- tower of 6 blocks, veical and circular stroke. 3 years-Tower of 9 blocks, dressing and undressing with some help, can do buttoning. 4 years- copies cross, bridge with blocks 5 years- copies triangle, gate with blocks. SOCIAL AND ADAPTIVE MILESTONES: 2 months: social smile(smile after being talked to).watches mother when spoken to and may smile. 3 months:Recognizes mother, anticipates feeds. 4 months: Holds rattle when placed in hand and regards it . Laughs aloud. Excited at the sight of food. 6 months:recognizes strangers, stranger anxiety . Enjoy watching own image in mirror, shows displeasure when toy pulled off. 9 months:waves bye bye 12 months:comes when called, plays simple ball game.kisses the parent on request. Makes postural adjustments for dressing. 15 months:jargon, stas imitating mother. 18 months: copies parents in tasking, dry by day, calls mother when he wants potty, points to three pas of body on request. 2 years: ask for food, drink, toilet, pulls people to show toys. 3 years:shares toys, know fullname and gender, dry by night. 4 years:Plays cooperatively in a group, goes to toilet alone, washes face, brushes teeth. Role play . 5 years:helps in household task , dresses and undresses. LANGUAGE MILESTONES: 1 month: Ales to sound. 2 month:respond to sound by stale or quitening to a smooth voice. 3 months: babbles when spoken to. Makes sounds (ahh,coos, ) laughs. 4 months: laughs aloud. 6 months: monosyllables 9 months: understands spoken words, bisyllables. 12 months: 1-2 words with meaning. 18 months: vocabulary of 10 words. Can name one pa of body. 2 years: 3 word simple sentences 3 years:asks questions, knows full name and gender. 4 years: says songs or poem, tells story, knows three colours. 5 years: ask meaning of words. {Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, eighth edition}
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which drug is not used in SIADH:\nChoices:\nA. Fludrocoisone\nB. Demeclocycline\nC. Desmopressin\nD. Hypeonic saline\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase lette... | Answer is C (Desmopressin) : Desmopressin has no role in the management of SIADH. In Acute SIADH, the keystone of treatment is to restrict total fluid intake to less than the sum total of insensible losses and urinary output. If more rapid correction of hyponatremia is desired, the fluid restriction can be supplemented by intravenous infusion of hypeonic saline. In chronic SIADH, the hyponatremia can be minimized by treatment with demeclocycline or fludrocoisone.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is false regarding Cholestasis of pregnancy ?\nChoices:\nA. Serum bilirubin >5 mg/dl\nB. Alanine amino transferase (ALT) <250 IU/L\nC. Pruritus preceeds abnormal lab values by weeks\nD. Dys... | Hyperbilirubinemia results from retention of conjugated pigment, but total plasma concentrations rarely exceeds 4 to 5 mg/dl. Serum transaminase levels are normal to moderately elevated but seldom exceed 250 U/L Disorder AST (SGOT) U/L Biliirubin (mg/dl) Cholestasis of pregnancy Upto 200 1-5 Acute fatty liver of pregnancy 200-800 4-10 Hepatitis 2000+ 5-20 Ref: Williams Obstetrics 25th edition Pgno: 1059
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Therapeutic drug monitoring is required for: March 2010\nChoices:\nA. Sulfonamides\nB. Metformin\nC. Cycloserine\nD. Gentamycin\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppe... | Ans. D: Gentamycin
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is not true about Brugada syndrome\nChoices:\nA. SCN5A defect\nB. Asymptomatic ST segment elevation\nC. Sudden death\nD. Pacemaker is the treatment of choice\n</Question>\nAt the end presen... | Brugada syndrome (BrS) is a genetic disorder in which the electrical activity within the hea is abnormal. It increases the risk of abnormal hea rhythms and sudden cardiac death. Diagnosis is typically by electrocardiogram (ECG), however, the abnormalities may not be consistently present. About a quaer of those with Brugada syndrome have a family member who also has the condition.Some cases may be due to a new genetic mutation or ceain medications. The most commonly involved gene is SCN5A which encodes the cardiac sodium channel.Diagnosis is typically by electrocardiogram (ECG), however, the abnormalities may not be consistently present.Medications such as ajmaline may be used to reveal the ECG changes.Similar ECG patterns may be seen in ceain electrolyte disturbances or when the blood supply to the hea has been reduced. There is no cure for Brugada syndrome.Those at higher risk of sudden cardiac death may be treated using an implantable cardioveer defibrillator (ICD) In those without symptoms the risk of death is much lower, and how to treat this group is less clear. Isoproterenol may be used in the sho term for those who have frequent life-threatening abnormal hea rhythms, while quinidine may be used longer term.Testing people's family members may be recommended While many of those with Brugada syndrome do not have any symptoms, Brugada syndrome may cause fainting or sudden cardiac death due to serious abnormal hea rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation or polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.Blackouts may be caused by brief abnormal hea rhythms that reve to a normal rhythm spontaneously. If a dangerous hea rhythm does not stop by itself and is left untreated, the person may have a fatal cardiac arrest. However, blackouts can occur in those with Brugada syndrome despite a normal hea rhythm due to a sudden drop in blood pressure, known as vasovagal syncope. The abnormal hea rhythms seen in Brugada syndrome often occur at rest, following a heavy meal, or even during sleep.These situations are linked to periods when the vagus nerve is activated, referred to as periods of high vagal tone. Abnormal hea rhythms may also occur during fever or following excessive alcohol. Ceain medications may also worsen the tendency to abnormal hea rhythms in patients with Brugada syndrome and should be avoided by these patients. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 440
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Following extraction of the impacted mandibular canine, which involved the use of micromotor, the patient developed severe pain and ecchymosis as seen in the color plate. What can be the cause?\nChoices:\nA. Post... | The information provided in the question and image leads to diagnosis of post surgical ecchymosis. The main symptom of emphysema is a crepitus of the swollen tissues
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A young male, Farhan suffers from a seizure disorder which is characterized by tonic rigidity of limbs followed in 20-30 sec by tremors progressing to massive jerking of the body. This clonic phase lasts for 1–3 ... |
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
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"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casualty hospital in an hour with severe maxillofacial trauma. His Pulse rate was 120/min, BP was 100/70 mm Hg, Sp02 - 80% with oxygen. What ... | Orotracheal intubation is recommended in patients with severe maxillofacial injury as patient saturation is falling . Tracheotomy is indicated in severe facial trauma but orotracheal intubation under modern intubation techniques using fibre optic assistance is being preferred over tracheostomy.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Abatacept is -\nChoices:\nA. TNF alpha inhibitor\nB. Inhibitor of co - stimulation of T cells\nC. IL - I receptor antagonist\nD. Monoclonal antibody against IL - 6 receptor\n</Question>\nAt the end present your a... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inhibitor of co-stimulation of T cells o Abatacept inhibits the co - stimulation of T cells by blocking CD28 - CD80/86 interactions and also inhibits the function of antigen presenting cells by reverse signalling through CD80 and CD 86.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Base of Submental triangle is formed by\nChoices:\nA. Chin\nB. Omohyoid\nC. Hyoid\nD. Diagastric\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",... | Boundaries of Sub Mental Triangle Apex - Symphysis Menti Base - Hyoid Bone On each side - Anterior belly of Digastric Content - Sub Mental nodes Floor - Mylohyoid
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 80-year-old woman is brought by her daughter due to progressive forgetfulness over the past few years. She often forgets the way home and cannot remember the right words. She also has problem in multi-tasking. ... | This patient most likely has Alzheimer's disease. In advanced disease atrophy is most pronounced in temporoparietal lobes and hippocampus. Several genes play an impoant role in the pathogenesis of AD. One is the APP gene on chromosome 21. Presenilin-1 (PSEN-1) is on chromosome 14. Presenilin-2 The Apo e4 allele confers increased risk of AD in the general population.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In starvation, brain utilizes glucose preferentially but not in liver becausea) Low km value of hexokinaseb) Low km glucokinasec) High km glucokinased) High blood flow\nChoices:\nA. ac\nB. bc\nC. ad\nD. b\n</Ques... | Glucokinase has high Km value, i.e. low affinity for glucose. That means glucokinase acts only when glucose concentration is high (as in absorptive/fed state). It is dormant when glucose concentration is low (as in postabsorptive -fasting state). Liver contains glucokinase, therefore it cannot utilize glucose in starvation as glucose concentration is low and glucokinase is dormant. In fact, this is a welcome response as it spares glucose for the organs which are exclusively dependent on glucose for energy requirement, e.g. brain.
Hexokinase, on the other hand, has low Km value, i.e. high affinity for glucose. It can utilize glucose even in lower concentrations. The brain contains hexokinase, therefore it can utilize glucose in starvation.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is caused by defective transport of tryptophan -\nChoices:\nA. Hartnup disease\nB. Maple syrup urine disease\nC. Alkaptonuria\nD. Phenylketonuria\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answe... | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hartnup disease Hartnup diseaseo It is an inherited disorder in the metabolism of tryptophan.o It is due to defective transport of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids in the intestine and kidney,o This results in deficiency of tryptophan leading to decreased synthesis of niacin and serotonin,o Thus there are pellagra (niacin deficiencyj, neurological symptoms (serotonin deficiency) and amino aciduria due to defective transport of amino acids in kidney.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 30 year old pregnant woman presents to a physician with painful oral ulcers. Physical examination demonstrates widespread erosions of her mucous membranes. Close examination reveals a friable mucosa, but no wel... | This is pemphigus vulgaris, in which autoantibody directed against transmembrane cadherin adhesion molecules induced acantholysis (breakdown of epithelial cell-cell connections) with resulting intraepidermal blister formation. It may develop spontaneously or following triggers such as drugs (thiols, penicillamine), physical injury (burns), cancer, pregnancy, other skin diseases, and emotional stress. Pemphigus vulgaris is a relatively rare blistering disease; it is seen more commonly in patients with Jewish or Mediterranean heritage. In addition to the usually prominent oral ulcers, uncomfoable skin erosions can also occur when the blisters rupture rapidly and are not observed. The epidermis at the edge of these erosions is often easily disrupted by sliding pressure (Nikolsky sign). Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by deeper blisters, occurring at the dermal-epidermal junction. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by severe, intense pruritus and groups of papules and vesicles. Herpes simplex I or II can show multinucleated giant cells on scrapings of the ulcer base. Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 34. Disorders of the Mouth. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Van-Nuys classification does not include which of the following?\nChoices:\nA. Patients age\nB. Size of tumor\nC. Presence of microcalcification\nD. Her-2-neu receptor status\n</Question>\nAt the end present your... | Van Nuy's prognostic index (VNPI) was designed for DCIS patients, to determine which patients do not required radiotherapy after tumour resection. Size of tumour Width of margins Age of patient Grade Microcalcification (mnemonic: - micro SWAG)
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All the following are true about osteoporosis except\nChoices:\nA. There is bending of long bones\nB. There is hypercalcemia\nC. There is veebral compression fractures\nD. Milkman's fracture\n</Question>\nAt the ... | Bending of bones and milkman's fracture is very much related to osteomalacia but they are also seen in osteoporosis. Whereas veebral compression fracture is related to osteoporosis but also seen in osteomalaciaOsteoporosis OOsteoporosis is defined as a reduction of bone mass (or density) or the presence of a fragility fracture. OSeveral noninvasive techniques are now available for estimating skeletal mass or density. These include *Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA), *Single-energy X ray absorptiometry (SXA), *Quantitative computed tomography (CT), and *Ultrasound. The diagnosis of Osteoporosis is made when a patient has a characteristic osteoporotic fracture. In absence of such a fracture, evaluation of osteoporosis is done by T score measurement based on bone mass T scoreDiseaseT score > - 1Normal T score - 1 and - 2.5 Osteopenia T score < - 2.5 Osteoporosis (Refer: Mercer's Textbook of Ohopedics, 9thedition, pg no: 310-313)
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Best investigation for pericardial effusion is -\nChoices:\nA. MRI\nB. CT\nC. X ray\nD. Echocardiography\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, ... | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Echocardiography Investigations o Investiation of choice to identify individual cardiac chamber enlargement - 2D-echocardiography. o Inv estigation of choice for pericardial effusion - 2D-echocardiography. o Investigation of choice for valvular heart disease - 2D-echocardiography. o Investigation of choice for cardiomyopathy -2D-echocardiography. o Investigation of choice for cardiac temponade - 2D-echocardiography. o Investigation of choice for aortic dissection in stable patient - MRl. o Investigation of choice for aortic dissection in unstable patient - TEE. o Investigation of choice for ventricular function and size - Echocardiography o Investigation of choice for congenital heart disease - Echocardiography, o Investigation of choice for pericardial defect - MRI. o Investigation of choice for radiotherapy/chemotherapy induced myocardial damage - Endomyocardial biopsy o Investigation of choice for myocardial perfusion and viability (reversible ischemia) - Nuclear cardiac imaging (thallium scan or Technetium scan) o Most sensitive investigation for air embolism - Trans-esophageal echocardiography. o Second most sensitive investigation for air embolism - PrecordiaJ Doppler o Best x-ray view for right atrial enlargement - Left anterior oblique view, o Best x-ray view for left atrial enlargement - Right anterior oblique view with barium swallow
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 50 years old man has a 2 year history of facial bullae & oral ulcers. Microscopic smear from skin lesions is most likely to disclose – a) Tzanck cellsb) Acantholytic cellsc) Necrosisd) Koilocytosis\nChoices:\nA... | Facial bulla and oral ulcers (mucosal involvement) in a 50 years man suggest the diagnosis ofpemphigus vulgaris. The smear from the lesions will show ancantholytic cells also referred to as Tzank cells, which are separated keratinocytes.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The flap not used to reconstruct Breast is\nChoices:\nA. Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap\nB. Latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap\nC. Pectoralis major myocutoneous flap\nD. Transversus rectus abdomini... | Ans. (c) Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap(Ref: Bailey 26th /e p. 816, Sabiston 20th edition 867)Flaps used to reconstruct Breast:* Transverse rectum abdominis flap (Pedicled or Free flaps)* Latissimus Dorsi flap* Gluteal flap* Ruben's flap* Thoraco epigastric flap* Lateral thigh flap
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Triplex DNA is clue to\nChoices:\nA. Hoogsteen Pairing\nB. Palindromic sequences\nC. Large no. of guanosine repeats\nD. PolypYrimidine tracts\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer>... | Triple- stranded DNA- forms hydrogen bonds with another surface of the double helix through called Hoogsteenpairs.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In micturition reflex, the first change to occur is _______\nChoices:\nA. Trigone relaxation\nB. Detrusor contraction\nC. Relaxation of perineal muscles\nD. Decreased urethral pressure\n</Question>\nAt the end pr... | One of the initial events is the relaxation of the muscles of the pelvic floor, and this may cause a sufficient downward tug on the detrusor muscle to initiate its contraction. Micturition Reflex Micturition is fundamentally a spinal reflex facilitated and inhibited by higher brain centers and is subject to voluntary facilitation and inhibition. These centers include Strong facilitative and inhibitory centers in the brain stem, located mainly in the pons Several centers located in the cerebral coex that is mainly inhibitory but can become excitatory. The micturition reflex is the basic cause of micturition, but higher centers normally exe final control of micturition. Micturition reflex is the result of a stretch reflex initiated by sensory stretch receptors in the bladder wall, especially by the receptors in the posterior urethra when this area begins to fill with urine at the higher bladder pressures. Sensory signals from the bladder stretch receptors are conducted to the sacral segments of the cord through the pelvic nerves and then reflexively back again to the bladder through the parasympathetic nerve fibers by way of these same nerves. As the bladder continues to fill, the micturition reflexes become more frequent and cause greater contraction of the detrusor muscle. Once a micturition reflex begins, it is &;self-regenerative&; It is a single complete cycle of The progressive and rapid increase of pressure A period of sustained pressure and Return of the pressure to the basal tone of the bladder. As the bladder becomes more and more fiilled, micturition reflexes occur more and more often and more and more powerfully. Once micturition reflex becomes powerful enough, it causes another reflex, which passes through the pudendal nerves to the extrenal sphincter to inhibit it. If this inhibition is more potent in the brain than the voluntary constrictor signals to the extrenal sphincter, urination will occur. If not, urination will not occur until the bladder fills still fuher and the micturition reflex becomes more powerful. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 329-330
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which passive movement causes pain in deep posterior compament syndrome ?\nChoices:\nA. Foot abduction\nB. Dorsi flexion of foot\nC. Plantar flexion of foot\nD. Foot adduction\n</Question>\nAt the end present you... | Passive stretching of the muscles produce pain in compament syndrome and hence, dorsiflexion of foot (a) causes pain. Posterior compament of leg is concerned with plantar flexion of foot, and is supplied by the tibial nerve and posterior tibial vessels. Compament syndrome is caused by increased pressure in an enclosed space that leads to compromise of circulation and function of tissues in that space. a. There is elevation of interstitial pressure in closed fascial compament that results in microvascular compromise. b. As duration & magnitude of interstitial pressure increase, myoneural function is impaired & necrosis of soft tissues eventually develops. Pain with passive stretching is the most sensitive early sign of compament syndrome. a. Patient will usually hold injured pa in a position of plantar-flexion to maximally relax the fascia/muscles and reduce pain. b. For e.g., Clawing of the toes is a common sequela of post-traumatic compament syndrome within the deep posterior compament following a distal third tibia fracture. Fasciotomy is one of the definitive treatments of the syndrome. Ref - CSDT 12th e p1123
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Most common side efiect of mifepristone\nChoices:\nA. Fever\nB. Headache\nC. Diarrhea\nD. Rash\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
... | Mifepristone (RU 485) It is a 19 norsteroid with potent antiprogestational and significant antiglucocoicoid and antiandrogenic actitity.It is used in termination of pregnancy, cervical ripening postcoital contraceptive, once a month contraceptive, in induction of labour and to treat cushing's syndrome.Commonly repoed side afects include vaginal bleeding, cramping, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dizziness, back pain & tenderness.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The first number in the instrument formula indicates\nChoices:\nA. Length of the blade in centimeters\nB. 1/10th of the width\nC. angulation of the blade in degrees\nD. primary cutting edge angle\n</Question>\nAt... |
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Cells responsible for GVHD is ?\nChoices:\nA. Immunocompetent T cell donor\nB. Immunocompetent T Cell recipient\nC. Immunocompetent B cell donor\nD. Immunocompetent B cell donor\n</Question>\nAt the end present y... | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immunocompetent T-cell donor Graft- versus-host disease (GVHD) :? GVHD occurs when immunologically competent cells (T cells) or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled recipients, and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host and attack host tissues. Most commonly involved tissues in Graft versus host disease :- Liver Skin Gut
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Preterm baby with PDA, which is the least likely findings?\nChoices:\nA. CO2 washout\nB. Bounding pulses\nC. Pulmonary hemorrhage\nD. Necrotising enterocolitis\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <ans... | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CO2 washout PDA in preterm neonate o In previous explanations I have explained that chances of spontaneous closure of PDA are higher in premature infants as there is no structural abnormality. However, you should keep in mind that this fact is true when we are comparing the spontaneous closure of PDA between term and pre-term neonate. Overall, the percentage of spontaneous closure of PDA in preterm neonate is very low. To avoid confusion, I am explaining following facts in brief:? 1) Normal neonate :- Ductus aeriosus closes functionally within about 15 hours of bih. 2) PDA in term (mature) neonate :- The persistence of ductus aeriosus beyond 24 hours after bih is considered as PDA in term neonate. Spontaneous closure of PDA does not usually occur because PDA results from structural abnormality. 3) PDA in pre-term (pre-mature) neonate :- The ductus aeriosus in pre-term neonate is not as responsive to increased oxygen content as it is in term neonate. However, there is no structural abnormality. i) Chances of spontaneous closure are very less (compared to normal term neonate). ii)Chances of spontaneous closure are more than the term-neonate with PDA. However, in premature neonate, where hypoxic pulmonary disease is commonplace, the ductus being sensitive to hypoxia, remains open. o So, it is very unlikely that spontaneous closure of PDA will occur in pre-term neonate. But chances are more when compared to term neonate with PDA (not normal term neonate in which ductus aeriosus closes within 15 hours of bih). Manifestations of PDA in pre-term neonate 1) Apnea for unexplained reasons in an infant recovering from RDS; 2) A hyperdynamic precordium, bounding peripheral pulses, wide pulse pressure, and a continuous or systolic murmur with or without extension into diastole or an apical diastolic murmur, multiple clicks resembling the shaking of dice; 3) Carbon dioxide retention; 4) Increasing oxygen dependence; 5) X-ray evidence of cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings; and 6) Hepatomegaly o Increased pulmonary blood flow and compromised ventricular function accompanying dropping pulmonary resistance in the setting of a PDA is a significant risk factor for pulmonary hemorrhage. o The greatest risk factor for NEC is prematurity. Any etiology which leads on to hemodynamic or hypoxic insult predisposes to NEC. PDA is common in preterm infants and it definitely causes hemodynamic stress and is a risk factor for development of NEC.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which is not a function of PHC-\nChoices:\nA. Medical care\nB. Referral services\nC. Advanced Laboratory services\nD. MCH\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase ... | Functions of PHC includes ; - medical care - MCH - Safe water and sanitation - health education - referral services - training of health guide, health workers - basic laboratory services Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no;905 <\p>
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All of the following are analytical epidemiological studies except-\nChoices:\nA. Coho study\nB. Case - control study\nC. Ecological study\nD. Field trial\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> ... | Analytical studies include: Ecological or correlational-with populations as a unit of study Cross-sectional or prevalence-with individuals as a unit of study Case-control or case reference-with individual as a unit of study Coho or followup-with individual as a unit of study (refer pg no:62 park 23rd edition)
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Fluoride helps in ?\nChoices:\nA. Vision\nB. Dentition\nC. Myelination\nD. Joint stability\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
"... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dentition
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Privileged communication among the following are all except -\nChoices:\nA. In cou of law when asked by judge\nB. Information on communicable diseases\nC. In case of suspected crime\nD. Bus driver suffering from ... | PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATION : It is a statement made bonafide upon any subject matter, by a doctor to the concerned authority, due to his duty to protect the interests of the community or the state. To be privileged, communication must be made to a person having an interest in it, or in reference of which he has duty. If made to more than one person, or to person who has not a direct interest in it, the plea of privilege fails. EXAMPLES OF PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATIONS: 1. Infectious diseases 2. Venereal diseases 3. Servants and employees 4. Notifiable diseases 5. Patient's own interest 6. Self-interest 7. Cous of law 8. Suspected crime REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Dr. K.S.Narayan Reddy 29th edition page no: 19
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is the most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major?\nChoices:\nA. Oral desferoxamine\nB. Oral deferiprone\nC. Intramuscular EDTA\nD. Oral Succimerq\n</Questio... | Deferiprone is a recently introduced orally active iron chelator which has simplified the treatment of transfusion siderosis in thalassemia patients. Oral desferrioxamine is poorly absorbed when given orally so not preferred in the oral route. Oral Deferiprone is a less effective alternative to injected desferrioxamine. Deferiprone has also been indicated for acute Iron poisoning & for iron load in liver cirrhosis. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 813-5
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 15-year-old vegetarian being treated for tuberculosis develops peripheral neuropathy. choose the one most appropriate vitamin or trace element replacement therapy to treat the described condition.\nChoices:\nA.... | Treatment for tuberculosis usually includes the medication isoniazid (INH), and INH competitively inhibits pyridoxine utilization. In most children, this does not result in clinical manifestations, but in individuals with a poor dietary intake of pyridoxine (eg, teenagers, vegetarians, and exclusively breast-fed infants), numbness and tingling of the hands and feet may develop. Treatment is replacement of pyridoxine.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 1 cm coin lesion is seen on chest X-ray in the right upper lobe. FNAC shows adenocarcinoma. Appropriate management is:\nChoices:\nA. Excision and observation\nB. Excision and chemotherapy\nC. Neoadjuvant chemot... | Ans: A (Excision and observation) Ref: Schwartzs Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition & Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, 19th EditionExplanation:"Early stage lung cancer (Stages l and II) may successfully he Heated with surgery alone and, in most patients, yields long-term survival rates." {Ref: Sabi st on)Principles of Management of Lung AdenocarcinomaTreatment options includeSurgery for localized diseaseChemotherapy for metastatic diseaseRadiation therapy for local control in patients whose condition is not amenable to surgery.Radiation therapy and chemotherapy together are better than chemotherapy or radiation therapy alone for primary treatment of advanced stage lung cancer.Solitary Pulmonary NoduleAmong patients with lung cancer, the best survival can be expected in cases presenting with asymptomatic solitary peripheral pulmonary nodule on chest x-ray (coin lesions)The solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) - abnormal density up to 4 cm in diameter, rounded or ovoid in appearance surrounded by a zone of lung tissue by x-ray, and free of cavitation or associated lung infiltrates.Eccentric flecks of calcium may he presentRecent analyses suggest that approximately 80 percent of all coin lesions were malignant in patients over 50 years of age.The differential diagnosis of an SPN includes many entitiesMalignant tumorsBenign tumorsPulmonary hamartomaGranulomaPulmonary arteriovenous fistulaPulmonary'' infarctionSurgery is rarely indicated for the nonmalignant lesions if diagnosis is confirmed.Where calcification is present, CT is useful in selecting the rare patient who can be observed safely.CT scans have the capacity to measure absorption coefficients, which indicate tissue density.For many years there has been a difference of opinion regarding the management of patients with SPNs, with some groups advocating early thoracotomy with resection of the lesion for all patients above 35 years of age and others urging a more conservative approach with greater emphasis on diagnostic studies and observation.Although the resection policy did result in a 50 percent frequency of removal of benign lesions, excellent cure rates could be expected if primary malignancies were found.Serial radiographs provide the data for calculation of grow th rate, and it usually is possible to detect that a lesion is grow ing within a few weeks.The doubling time of malignant nodules is usually between 37 and 4f>5 days.If the lesion is growing more slowly or more rapidly than this, the evidence is in favor of benignity.With the advent of video-assisted thoracoscopic techniques, resection of nodules in the periphery of the lung result in minimal morbidity and virtually no mortality.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block –\nChoices:\nA. Nasal stuffness\nB. Guttman sign\nC. Homer's syndrome\nD. Bradycardia\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <an... | Signs of successful stellate ganglion block :- Horner's syndrome, flushing of face, conjuctival congestion, nasal stuffiness (Guttman's sign), injection of tympanic membrane (Mueller's syndrome), increased skin temprature, lacrimation.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Indication of caesarean section after previous caesarean section is?\nChoices:\nA. Hypertension\nB. Type 1 placenta previa\nC. CPD\nD. Multigravida\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </a... | ANSWER: (C) CPDREF: Dutta 6th ed page 589See previous question for explanation
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Cribriform hymen is seen -\nChoices:\nA. Post paum\nB. Septate hymen\nC. Sieve hymen\nD. Virgin\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
... | Ref: Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.354 Hymen is a thin fold of connective tissue, covered by mucous membranes, about 1 mm in overall thickness, situated at the vaginal orifice. They are of different types. cribriform is one of them, characterized by many small holes. As a result of sexual intercourse, hymen is usually tornfrom posteriorly, with unilateral or bilateral tears extending to the point of its attachment to the vaginal wall. So presence of hymen most probably indicate virginity.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Gram-positive bacteria stain during Gram staining\nChoices:\nA. Blue\nB. Red\nC. Violet\nD. Green\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D)."... | Gram-positive bacteria have a thick mesh-like cell wall made of peptidoglycan, and as a result are stained purple by crystal violet, whereas gram-negative bacteria have a thinner layer, so do not retain the purple stain and are counter-stained pink by safranin or carbol fuchsin. Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 13
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In Medullary Carcinoma thyroid Tumour marker is?\nChoices:\nA. TSH\nB. Calcitonin\nC. T3, T4 and TSH\nD. Alpha Feto protein\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercas... | Ans is B ie calcitonin Schwaz Surgery writes ? The presence of amyloid is a diagnostic finding, but immunohistochemistry for calcitonin is more commonly used as a diagnostic tumor marker. These tumors also stain positive for CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen) and CGRP (Calcitonin gene-related peptide)"
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Normal PCV value is?\nChoices:\nA. 30-35%\nB. 40-45%\nC. 50-55%\nD. 60-65%\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
"role": "user"
... | Ans. is 'b' i.e. 40-45% * Normal values are about 45% for men and about 42% for women.Hematocrit or Packed cell volume (PCV)* It is the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells.* A decrease in the number or size of red cells also decreases the amount of space they occupy, resulting in lower hematocrit.* Similarly an increase in the number or size of red cells increases hematocrit.* Exceptions are thalassemia which can cause an increased number of red blood cells but a decreased size and hematocrit, and megaloblastic anemia which causes increase in size of red cells with decreased hematocrit
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Oral Hairy Leukoplakia is associated with:\nChoices:\nA. HIV\nB. HPV\nC. EBV\nD. CMV\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D).",
"role":... | EBV
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Choose the best Lab value for a patient with central diabetes insipidus\nChoices:\nA. Urinary Osmolality - 50, Serum Osmolality - 300\nB. Urinary Osmolality - 500, Serum Osmolality - 260\nC. Urinary Osmolality - ... | Diabetes insipidus is the reverse of SIADH, here the ADH level is decreased which leads to excessive water loss from the kidney resulting in hypertonic plasma associated with dilute urine.
It can be
- Central → (due to impaired secretion of ADH from the neurohypophysis)
- Nephrogenic → (due to renal insensitivity or nonresponsiveness to ADH).
In both circumstances. the serum osnzolality is increased with inappropriately low urine osmolalitv.
The two may be distinguished, however, by the response to either exogenous or endogenous vasopressin.
In neurogenic (central) DI,
- ADH levels are 100, and the kidney rapidly acts to conserve water once exogenous ADH is administered.
In contrast, in nephrogenic DI,
- ADH is associated with normal or increased ADHe levels and administration of additional ADH has no significant effect on renal water reabsorption.
Also known
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Puttiplat operation is done for ?\nChoices:\nA. Elbow instability\nB. Shoulder instability\nC. Rotator cuff tear\nD. Biceps Tendinitis\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using ... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Shoulder instability
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The function of a reservoir in a sprue is to avoid:\nChoices:\nA. Localised shrinkage porosity\nB. Microporosity\nC. Generalised porosity\nD. None of the above\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <ans... |
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In trauma patient safe airway maneuver is:\nChoices:\nA. Chin lift.\nB. Head tilt.\nC. Jaw thrust\nD. Both A& C\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A,... | Chin lift and jaw thrust don't lead to neck movement hence safe in trauma patient.
Among both the process jaw thrust is safest.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Posterior w all of axilla is formed by -\nChoices:\nA. Pectoralis major\nB. Subclavius\nC. Subscapularis\nD. Intercostal muscles\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an upp... | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subscapularis Axilla (armpit)o The axilla is a pyramidal space situated between the upper part of the arm and the chest wall. It resembles a four sided pyramid, and has following : (i) an apex (ii) a base (iii) four walls (anterior, posterior, medial and lateral).Anterior (pectoral) wall Formed by (i) Pectoralis major; (ii) Pectoralis minor, and (iii) Subclavius. The . latter two muscles enclosed by clavipectoral fascia.Posterior (subscapular) wallFormed by (i) Subcapularis. (ii) Teres major, and (iii) Latissimus dorsi.Medial (thoracic) wallFormed by (i) Upper four ribs (with their intercostal muscles), and (ii) Upper part of serratus anterior.Lateral (humeral) wallFormed by (i) Upper part of humerus with bicipital groove lodging the tendon of long head of biceps, and (ii) Corachobrachialis and short head of biceps -Base Formed by Skin, superficial fascia and deep (axillary) fascia. It is directed downwards.Apex It is directed upwards and medially towards the root of neck. It communicates with supraclavicular triangle of neck, hence referred to as Cervicoaxillary canal. It is triangular in shape and is bounded anteriorly by clavicle, posteriorly by upper part of scapula and medially by outer border of first rib. The axillary artery and brachial plaxus enter the axilla through this canal.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Earliest sign of OSMF:\nChoices:\nA. Burning sensation\nB. Blanching\nC. Restricted mouth opening.\nD. Circum oral bands.\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase ... | Earliest complaint : burning sensation
Earliest sign : blanching
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>In abdominal pregnancy, the pathognomonlc sign is:\nChoices:\nA. Jacquemier\nB. Chadwick\nC. Puskacek\nD. Weinberg\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter ... | Weinberg
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Congo red staining of abdominal fat has confirmed a diagnosis of Amyloidosis in a 28-year-old man. Which is the most common cause of death in primary AL Amylodosis?\nChoices:\nA. Respiratory failure\nB. Cardiac f... | Cardiac failure is the most common cause of death in primary or AL amyloidosis. Cardiac involvement is seen in 40% of patients with AL amyloidosis. Amyloid involvement of myocardium, intramural coronary aeries and conduction system may cause congestive hea failure, ischemic syndrome and rythm disturbances. Diagnosis of amyloidosis should be considered in patients with unexplained nephropathy, cardiomyopathy (diastolic dysfunction), neuropathy, enteropathy, or pathognomonic soft tissue findings of macroglossia or periorbital ecchymoses. Pathologic diagnosis of amyloid fibrils can be made by congo red staining of aspirated abdominal fat or of an involved organ biopsy specimen.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The nerve roots blocked in pudendal nerve block is:\nChoices:\nA. L1,2,3\nB. L2,3\nC. S2,3,4\nD. S4\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D)... | Pudendal nerve block:
Pudendal nerve arises from: S2, S3, S4 and therefore pudendal nerve block - will block S2, S3, S4, nerve roots.
It is used for perineal analgesia and relaxation.
Anaesthesia used is 20 ml of 1% lignocaine.
Route: Transvaginal and perineal route.
Site: Pudendal nerve is blocked just above the tip of ischial spine.
Indications:
Prior to application of forceps or vacuum
To suture vaginal lacerations
In Assisted breech delivery.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Which of the following is the earliest clinical sign of Vit A deficiency?\nChoices:\nA. Bitot's spot\nB. Corneal xerosis\nC. Conjunctival xerosis\nD. Keratomalacia\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in ... | The ocular manifestation of Vit A deficiency includes night blindness, conjunctival xerosis, Bitot's spot, corneal xerosis and keratomalacia. Extra ocular manifestation of Vit A deficiency includes follicular hyperkeratosis, anorexia and growth retardation. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 568.
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Source of ATP in RBC&;s is\nChoices:\nA. Beta oxidation of fatty acids\nB. TCA cycle\nC. Anaerobic glycolysis\nD. Gluconeogenesis\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an up... | Glycolysis is the only source of energy in erythrocytes. During anaerobic (oxygen deficient) condition, when one molecule of glucose is conveed to 2 molecules of lactate, there is a net yield of 2 molecules of ATP. 4 molecules of ATP are synthesized by the 2 substrate level phosphorylations (steps 6 and 9). But 2 molecules of ATP are used in the steps 1 and 3, hence the net yield is only 2 ATP (Table 9.4). The whole reaction is summarized as Glucose + 2 Pi + 2 ADP --> 2 Lactate + 2 ATPRef: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 93 & 96
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All are true regarding hallucinations, except: AIIMS 09\nChoices:\nA. Represents a state of inner mind's spatial orientation\nB. Independent of the observer\nC. Under voluntary control\nD. Perception which occurs... | Ans. Under voluntary control
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All of the following are true about V. cholerae 0139 except:\nChoices:\nA. Clinical manifestations are similar to 01 El tor\nB. First discovered in Chennai\nC. Produces 0139 lipopolysaccharide\nD. Epidemiological... | Ans. (b) First discoverd in Chennai Guy's before solving this question, you must understand the epidemiology of cholera. Vibrio cholerae I 01 Type Non 01 (NAG) Classical El tor 0139 Bengal (Responsible for first six (Responsible for - Proposed agent pandemic of cholera) seventh pandemic) for 8th pandemic infuture In 1992, after its isolation 0139 had initially replaced E, tor and become the most common causative agent of cholera in South Asia. However, by the beginning of 1994 E, tor had resumed its dominance in many areas and above all 0139 has not spreaded outside Asia The clinical manifestation and epidemiological features of the disease caused by V. cholerae 0139 are indistinguishable from those of 01 cholera. 0139 V. cholerae is identical to E, tor except for two impoant differences: Production of novel 0139 Lipopolysaccharide. Immunologically related 0 antigen polysaccharide capsule. Remember: E, tor biotype was first isolated at the E, tor quarantine station in Egypt in 1905. - Presently most cases of cholera are caused by E1 tor.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 26 year old female patient complains of discoloration between her upper front teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals proximal caries between upper right and left central incisors extending lingually. Which techn... | Inverted Pen Grasp - The finger positions of the inverted pen grasp are the same as for the modified pen grasp. The hand is rotated, however, so that the palm faces more toward the operator. This grasp is used mostly for tooth preparations employing the lingual approach on anterior teeth.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 315-316.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Elevated ESR is seen in following conditions except:\nChoices:\nA. Polymyositis rheumatica\nB. Multiple myeloma\nC. Temporal aeritis\nD. Polycythemia rubra\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer>... | Polycythemia rubra: Elevated hemoglobin level and hematocrit: due to increased number of red blood cells * Platelet count or white blood cell count may also be increased. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is decreased due to an increase in zeta potential. Low erythropoietin (EPO) levels.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema. Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria. Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminemia with hyperlipidemia. Kidney biopsy was undeaken. On light mi... | The child is presenting with features likely of Nephrotic syndrome whose most frequent cause in children is minimal change disease or lipoid nephrosis or nil disease Light microscopy there is no abnormality whereas on electron microscopy there is fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells with normal glomeruli.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>First PM change in a dead body:-\nChoices:\nA. Maggot formation\nB. Putrefaction\nC. Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa\nD. Mummification\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </an... | First postmoem change in dead body is greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa * It's because of presence of caecum * Its first external site of putrefaction (Right Iliac Fossa) | H2S + Hb - sulf. Hb - green. * 1st internal site - Intima of aoic lumen (Reddish brown discoloration) * Most imp. bacteria involved in putrefaction - Clostridium welchi
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>One of the following statements about succinylcholine is true:\nChoices:\nA. It may induce life threatening hyperkalemia\nB. It has a long duration of action\nC. It is the drug of choice in non traumatic rhabdomy... | SCh is the shoest and fastest acting muscle relaxant. SCh is contra-indicated in patients with nerve or muscle disorders due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Sch also increases all the pressures in body like intraocular, intracranial, blood pressure, so has to be avoided in patients with such precipitating conditions. Therefore, cannot be used in patients with the following diseases:- Nerve disorders:- Hemiplegia, paraplegia, Guillain Barre syndrome etc. Muscle diorders:- Myopathy, myasthenia gravis, rhabdomyolysis, crush injury etc. When used with halothane, it might cause Malignant Hypehermia.
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Finding on histopathological examination in liver in case of malaria is -\nChoices:\nA. Microabscess formation\nB. Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around peripoal area laden with pigments\... | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around peripoal area laden with pigments o In severe infections with plasmodium falciparum, the vital organs are packed with erythrocytes containing mature form of the parasite. o There is abundant intra and extraerythrocytic pigment and organs such as liver, spleen and placenta may be grey black in colour. Liver and spleen in severe malaria Liver is generally enlarged and may be black from malarial pigment. o There is congestion of the centrilobular capillaries with sinusoidal dilatation and kupffer cell hyperplasia The Kupffer cells are heavily laden with malarial pigment, parasites and cellular debris. Sequestration of parasitized erythrocytes is associated with variable cloudy swelling of the hepatocytes and perivenous ischemic change and sometimes centrizonal necrosis. Hepatic glycogen is often present despite hypoglycemia. o The spleen is often dark or black from malarial pigment, enlarged, soft and friable. It is full of erythrocytes containing mature and immature parasites. o There is evidence of reticular hyperplasia and architectural reorganization. o The soft and acutely enlarged spleen of acute lethal infections contrasts with the hard fibrous enlargement associated with repeated malaria.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>All true the trigone of the urinary bladder except\nChoices:\nA. Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying musculature\nB. Mucosa is smooth\nC. It is lined by transitional epithelium\nD. It is derived from t... | The trigone is a smooth triangular region of the internal urinary bladder formed by the two ureteral orifices and the internal urithral orifice.The area is very sensitive to expansion and once stretched to a ceain degree, the urinary bladder signals the brain of its need to empty. The signals become stronger as the bladder continues to fill.Embryologically, the trigone of the bladder is derived from the caudal end of mesonephric duct, which is of mesodermal origin. In the female the mesonephric ducts regresses, causing the trigone to be less prominent, but still present. Ref - bdc 6e vol2 p373 , semantischolar.org
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The most common site of intestinal abstruction in gallstone ileus is\nChoices:\nA. Duodenum\nB. Jejunum\nC. Ileum\nD. Sigmoid colon\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an ... | .GALLSTONE ILEUS is a type of acute intestinal obstruction, often seen in elderly and is due to blockage by a bolus or mass of gallstones which commonly enter the intestine through cholecystoduodenal fistula or rarely through cholecystointestinal or -gastric fistulas .Gallstones in the gallbladder | Cholecystitis | Suppuration and adhesion over the duodenal wall | Communication of gallbladder into the duodenum | Gallstones pass into the duodenum forms a bolus ('Rolling stone gather mass') | Blocks narrow pa in the ileum. | Gallstone ileus ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 594
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Increased calories required during pregnancy is (in kcal/ day): March 2004\nChoices:\nA. 350\nB. 550\nC. 600\nD. 800\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase lette... | Ans. A i.e. 350
<answer>(A)</answer> | A |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>True for Vi polysaccharide vaccine\nChoices:\nA. Local side effects are common\nB. Severe systemic side effect\nC. Contra indicated in HIV\nD. Can be given with other vaccines like Hepatitis B & Yellow fever\n</Q... | Vi polysaccharide vaccine can be given with other vaccines like Hepatitis B & Yellow fever. Option 1, 2, 3, 4 -Typhim Vi is a subunit vaccine containing the cell surface Vi polysaccharide extracted from Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, S. typhi Ty2 strain. -Typhim Vi vaccine is indicated for active immunization against typhoid fever for persons two years of age or older. -The antibody response may be inadequate in children under 2 years of age. - Dose for adults and children is a single injection of 0.5 mL given intramuscularly in the deltoid. - Reimmunization every two years under conditions of repeated or continued exposure to the S typhi organism is recommended at this time. - Typhim Vi vaccine has efficacy against typhoid fever caused by S.typhi infection only. =The adverse reactions are predominately minor and transient local reactions:- -Local reactions such as injection site pain, erythema and induration almost always resolve within 48 hours of vaccination. -Though the antibody response in immunodeficiency states are often suboptimal, it should be given in HIV patients. -TYPHIm Vi may be administered during the same vaccination session with other common vaccines (yellow fever, diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, rabies prepared on Vero cells, meningitis A+C, hepatitis A and hepatitis B.) -Other vaccines for prophylaxis against enteric fever are:- Mono/di/trivalent heat- killed phenol preserved parenteral vaccines. Live attenuated Typhoid vaccine.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Composition of soda lime includes all except -\nChoices:\nA. NaOH\nB. KOH\nC. Ca (OH)2\nD. Mg (OH)2\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase letter (A, B, C, or D)... | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mg (OH)2 Soda limeo Most commonly used CO2 absorbent. The composition of Soda lime is: -Ca(OH)2-94%NaOH-5% (Catalyst)KOH-<1%Silica-To prevent dust formationIndicator Moisture Granule size-4-8 mesho 100 gm of sodalime can absorb upto 23 litres of CO2. Now a days a good quality sodalime with prolonged life, Durasorb is used which is pink when fresh and becomes white when exhausted.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The sympathetic fibres of uterus are derived from which segments of veibrae ?\nChoices:\nA. T12 - L1\nB. T11 - L2\nC. T1 - S2\nD. T12 - L2\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> us... | Sympathetic nerves from T12, LI segment of spinal cord produce uterine contraction and vasoconstriction. The parasympathetic nerves (S2, S3, S4) produce uterine inhibition and vasodilatation. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 422.
<answer>(D)</answer> | D |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Karyotyping of the foetus may be done from all of the following except -\nChoices:\nA. Lymphocyte\nB. Monocyte\nC. Amniocyte\nD. Fibroblast\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> u... | Although human chromosome may be visualized (karyotyping) in any growing tissue such as bone marrow, skin, fibroblast, amniotic fluid cells or chorionic villus; they are most conveniently studied in peripheral blood lymphocytes.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?\nChoices:\nA. Directly\nB. IG1-1\nC. Thyroxine\nD. Intranuclear receptors\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answer in <answer> and </answer> using an uppercase... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects are due to direct action of GH. These include gluconeogenesis, decreased peripheral utilization of glucose (decreased uptake), lipolysis and anabolic effect on proteins.
<answer>(B)</answer> | B |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>WHO recommended dose of misoprostol I'm the treatment of post paum hemorrhage\nChoices:\nA. 400 mcg oral\nB. 600 mcg sublingual\nC. 800 mcg sublingual\nD. 1000 mcg oral\n</Question>\nAt the end present your answe... | Refer WHO recommendations for prevention and treatment of PPH 2012 Oxytocin is drug of choice for treatment and we'll as prevention of post paum hemorrhage Alternative are ergometrine, fixed dose combination of Oxytocin and ergometrine and misopristol Misopristol is recommended as 600 mg orally for prevention of PPH and 800 mg sublingually for treatment of PPH
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
[
{
"content": "Given the following question and candidate answers, choose the best answer. <Question>The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells?\nChoices:\nA. Synthesizes antibodies\nB. Require antibodies to be present for action\nC. Effective against virus infected cells\nD. Recogniz... | Common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells is affectivity against virus-infected cellsNK cells:1st line of defense against virus-laden cells and neoplastic cellsCytotoxicity is not MHC restricted Cytotoxic T cells:They are antigen-specific T cells whose function is to produce antigen-specific lysis of target cells by the direct cell to cell contactAre usually CD+ class I MHC restricted T cellsAre impoant in defense against virus infections of tissues (Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2688,2669)
<answer>(C)</answer> | C |
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